• Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) is a money market instrument that represents an obligation between a borrower and a lender. The instrument works like a bond where the lender buys the CBLO and a borrower sells the money market instrument with interest. The term, the interest rate, and the specifics of the CBLO are often all negotiable between the two parties. In India, CBLOs are operated by the Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL) and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Hence option (c) is the correct answer. 

• Membrane bioreactor (MBR) is a new type of wastewater treatment technology combining membrane separation process with conventional activated sludge (CAS) treatment process. Due to the fact that the membrane pore size may be below 0.1μm, MBR can effectively produce a high-quality clarified effluent. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Pumped storage hydropower (PSH) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage. It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• Fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydrogen. They are more efficient than conventional internal combustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions—they only emit water vapor and warm air. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Hydrogels have been in the news for their diverse applications. Recently, hydrogels were in the news for their application in developing glucose-measuring technique in smartphones. Hydrogels are cross-linked polymeric networks swollen in biological fluid. They are widely used in the field of medicine. However, their uses are varied.
• This class of materials is used for local drug delivery because they provide high biocompatibility , drug protection , spatiotemporal control of the drug release , and physicochemical tailorability.
• Option 1 is correct: Hydrophilic polymeric networks that are capable of imbibing huge volumes of water and undergoing swelling and shrinkage suitably to facilitate controlled drug-release are called hydrogels. Their porosity and compatibility with aqueous environments make them highly attractive bio-compatible drug delivery vehicles.
• Option 2 is correct: Due to its water-absorbing properties hydrogels may be used to cool down electronic items.
• Option 3 is correct: Researches show hydrogels can be used as lubricants because of their excellent anti-friction and anti-wear properties.

• Fifth generation fighters are the most technologically advanced jets ever built. They were designed to operate with the help of digital programs and fly-by-wire to counter the threats they counter on the battlefield. Sophisticated avionics, stealth technology and super maneuvrability are just a few advantages over older jets that gives them domination in the sky. Being invisible to the enemies is a priority for the engineers, but it is also an extremely hard task for them. The stealth technology is a complex and advanced range of techniques which makes the aircraft (or any other vehicle) less visible to the opponent’s radars, and therefore reduces the chance of being detected.
• Option 1 is not correct: Rafael is often dubbed 4+ or 4.5.
• Option 2 is not correct: The Mikoyan MiG-29 (NATO reporting name: Fulcrum) is a 4th-generation jet fighter aircraft designed in the Soviet Union for an air superiority role.
• Option 3 is not correct: The Tejas Mark-1A is an indigenously designed, developed and manufactured modern 4-plus generation fighter aircraft with more than 65 per cent indigenous components.

• Radar, electromagnetic sensor used for detecting, locating, tracking, and recognizing objects of various kinds at considerable distances. It operates by transmitting electromagnetic energy toward objects, commonly referred to as targets, and observing the echoes returned from them.
• Option 1 is not correct: At the airports scanners use X-ray machines and metal detectors and not radar-based detectors (which use long-wave radiations; radiowaves) are generally used. At the same time, millimetre wave radar applications have also been used for airport surface movement control and foreign object detection, but the same cannot be called conventional radar. Thus option 1 is not correct.
• Option 2 is correct: Weather radars can be used to monitor the weather of a particular place.
• Option 3 is correct: Using radar has allowed researchers to examine migration altitude, speed, and wing beat frequency of birds, bats, and even insects during migration.

• Nitric oxide (NO) is produced naturally by the human body and is one of the most important molecules for blood vessel health. It's a vasodilator, meaning it relaxes the inner muscles of your blood vessels, causing the vessels to widen. In this way, nitric oxide increases blood flow and lowers blood pressure. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Giant Stars: Giant stars have masses from eight times to as much as 100 times that of the mass of our sun. These massive stars have hotter and denser cores than dwarf stars (stars that are smaller than five times the mass of our sun). Therefore, giant stars have a greater rate of the nuclear reactions that light up stars. Massive stars also use up the hydrogen fuel in their core faster, despite starting out with much more of it, meaning they live much shorter lives than dwarf stars. A giant star will also end its life in a spectacular fashion, via a supernova explosion, leaving behind a strange object such as a neutron star or an even more bizarre black hole.
• Statement I is not correct and statement 2 is correct: Giant stars are short-lived due to the faster rates of nuclear reactions. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are lightweight, compact spacecraft power systems that are extraordinarily reliable. RTGs provide electrical power using heat from the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238, in the form of plutonium oxide. The large difference in temperature between this hot fuel and the cold environment of space is applied across special solid-state metallic junctions called thermocouples, which generates an electrical current using no moving parts.
• Elimination tehchnique could have been used if statement 3 was difficult especially because of its second part.
• Statement 1 is not correct as the principles are different. Thus, options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct as its use in the spacecrafts has been its primary applications. NASA has been using the technology since the 1960s.
• Statement 3 is correct: Pu-238 is used due to its low half-life.

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Provisions under Companies Act, 2013

1. Eligibility for CSR Compliance

   • A company must comply with CSR provisions if, during the immediately preceding financial year, it meets any of the following criteria:

     • Net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or

     • Turnover of ₹1,000 crore or more, or

     • Net profit of ₹5 crore or more.

2. CSR Spending Requirement

   • Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 mandates that eligible companies must spend at least 2% of their average net profits from the preceding three financial years on CSR activities.

   • Statement 2 is not correct.

3. CSR Activities and Employee Benefits

   • Under the Companies (CSR Policy) Rules, 2014, any activity benefiting employees exclusively is not considered an eligible CSR activity.

   • Activities designed solely for employees' benefit do not qualify as permissible CSR expenditure.

   • Statement 1 is correct.

4. Conclusion

   • Statement 1 is correct, while Statement 2 is incorrect.

• The metaverse is a loosely defined term referring to virtual worlds in which users represented by avatars interact, usually in 3D and focused on social and economic connection. The metaverse often gets conflated with the virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR) technology used to experience a shared 3D world.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

• In the intricate realm of business finance, fixed capital and working capital stand as crucial pillars, each playing a distinct yet complementary role in shaping an enterprise's financial structure.
• Fixed capital represents the long-term assets that contribute to a company's foundation and growth. These assets, including buildings, machinery, and equipment, are not intended for immediate turnover but serve as the infrastructure necessary for sustained operations over an extended period. Farmer's plough and computer are classified as fixed capital because they are long term assets that provide benefit over multiple production cycles. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched and pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• Conversely, working capital addresses the short-term financial needs essential for day-to-day operational activities. Both petrol and yarn are raw materials consumed within a single production cycle and are essential for the day to day operations of their respective businesses. Hence they are categorised under working capital. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched and pair 4 is correctly matched. 

• SAF is a liquid fuel currently used in commercial aviation which reduces CO2 emissions by up to 80%. It can be produced from a number of sources (feedstock) including waste oil and fats, green and municipal waste and non-food crops.
• An estimated 1 billion dry tons of biomass can be collected sustainably each year in the United States, enough to produce 50–60 billion gallons of low-carbon biofuels. These resources include:
• Corn grain
  • Oil seeds
  • Algae
  • Other fats, oils, and greases
• Agricultural residues
  • Forestry residues
• Wood mill waste
  • Municipal solid waste streams
• Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge)
  • Dedicated energy crops.

Classification of Economy into Sectors

1. Primary Sector

   • Includes production units that exploit natural resources.

   • Examples: Farming, mining, fishing, dairy farming.

   • These activities are primarily carried out in rural areas.

   • Pair 2 is correctly matched.

2. Secondary Sector

   • Involves changing natural products into other forms through manufacturing.

   • Examples: Production of bicycles, scooters, spinning, weaving.

   • Mostly carried out in factories or mills.

   • Pair 4 is correctly matched.

3. Tertiary Sector

   • Produces only services, aiding primary and secondary sectors.

   • Examples: Banks, transport, shops, insurance, government departments, domestic servants.

   • These services support production but do not directly produce goods.

   • Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

4. Mineral Exploration

   • Different from mining, involves high-end research, development, and consulting for mineral prospecting.

   • Though linked to Quaternary and Quinary sectors, it has historically been classified under the Tertiary sector.

   • In the context of India’s three-sector classification, mineral exploration is considered part of the Tertiary sector.

   • Pair 3 is correctly matched.

5. Conclusion

   • Pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched, while Pair 1 is not correctly matched.

• A financial instrument is a real or virtual document representing a legal agreement involving any kind of monetary value. Financial instruments may also be divided according to an asset class, which depends on whether they are debt-based or equity-based. Foreign exchange instruments comprise a third, unique type of financial instrument.
• Debt-based instruments are essentially loans made by an investor to the owner of the asset. Short-term debt-based financial instruments last for one year or less. Securities of this kind come in the form of Treasury bills (T-bills) and commercial paper.
• Equity-based instruments represent ownership of an asset. Securities that trade under the banner of equity-based financial instruments are most often stocks, which can be either common stock or preferred shares. Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) and mutual funds may also be equity-based instruments.
• Foreign exchange (forex, or FX) instruments include derivatives such as forwards, futures, and options on currency pairs, as well as contracts for difference (CFDs). Currency swaps are another common form of forex instrument.
• Motor vehicles are tangible physical assets. They can be owned, bought, and sold, but they do not represent a financial claim or contractual agreement in the way that financial instruments do. While motor vehicles can be financed through loans or leases (which are financial instruments), the vehicles themselves are not classified as such.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer. 

• A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. It acknowledges the Government’s debt obligation. Such securities are short term (usually called treasury bills, with original maturities of less than one year) or long term (usually called Government bonds or dated securities with original maturity of one year or more).
• Major players in the G-Secs and Corporate Bond market include commercial banks and PDs besides institutional investors like insurance companies. PDs play an important role as market makers in G-Secs market. A market maker provides firm two way quotes in the market i.e. both buy and sell executable quotes for the concerned securities. Other participants include co-operative banks, regional rural banks, mutual funds, provident and pension funds.
• Through the Retail Direct scheme, individual investors can invest in Government bonds. In this scheme, individuals must register with the RBI for a Gilt Securities Account, called RDG or Retail Direct Gilt. RDG account holders can partake in the primary issuance of SG/CG/SGB/T-bill. One can directly invest In Corporate Bonds through apps like Zerodha etc. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) and Related Concepts

1. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)

   • Extended by RBI to Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding RRBs) and Primary Dealers (PDs).

   • Provides liquidity support in case of fund shortages or allows banks to park excess funds with RBI.

   • Operates on an overnight basis against collateral of G-Secs including SDLs.

   • Enables daily liquidity management through repurchase agreements (repos and reverse repos).

   • Only Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding RRBs) and PDs with Current Account and SGL Account with RBI, Mumbai can participate.

   • Only some specified NBFCs are part of PDs, while major NBFCs outside PDs cannot access the LAF window.

   • Statement 1 is not correct.

2. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) and Debt Investments

   • FIIs with SEBI approval can invest 100% of their portfolios in debt securities.

   • Investment can be in listed or to-be-listed corporate debt securities or dated government securities.

   • Such investments count towards the overall limit on external commercial borrowing (ECB).

   • Statement 2 is correct.

3. Development of the Corporate Debt Market

   • SEBI allowed the creation of a separate debt segment on stock exchanges to develop the corporate debt market.

   • Banks can become trading members of exchanges and trade in the debt market.

   • NSE was the first to introduce a separate trading platform for debts.

   • Statement 3 is correct.

4. Conclusion

   • Statement 1 is incorrect, while Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the average number of children born to a woman over her lifetime if she were to experience the current age-specific fertility rates, and if she lived from birth until the end of her reproductive life. In India, the TFR has experienced a significant decline, from nearly 6.2 children per woman in 1950 to just under 2 children per woman in 2021. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• TFR of about 2.1 children per woman is called Replacement-level fertility. TFR lower than 2.1 children per woman — indicates that a generation is not producing enough children to replace itself, eventually leading to an outright reduction in population.

• Statement I is correct: The nectar and fruit-eating flying fox (Pteropus giganteus) is generally considered a vermin as they raid orchards. It had a similar official status under Schedule V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972 until it was put on the Schedule II list entailing a higher degree of protection.
• Statement II is not correct: As a keystone species causing seed dispersals of many plants in tropical systems, the flying fox has fascinated zoologists over the years. The Indian flying fox is vermin because they believe that it "poaches" ripe fruit from orchards. A study in India found that of all orchard crops, Indian flying foxes did the most damage to mango and guava crops.

• The Fabaceae or Leguminosae, commonly known as the legume, pea, or bean family, are a large and agriculturally important family of flowering plants. It includes trees, shrubs, and perennial or annual herbaceous plants, which are easily recognized by their fruit and their compound, stipulate leaves.
• Option 1 is correct: The peanut belongs to the botanical family Fabaceae (or Leguminosae), commonly known as the legume, bean, or pea family.
• Option 2 is correct: Macrotyloma uniflorum is a legume native to tropical southern Asia, known for its distinct taste and texture, widely used legume in many cuisines. It also belongs to the family Fabaceae.
• Option 3 is correct: The soybean, soy bean, or soya bean is a species of legume native to East Asia, widely grown for its edible bean, which has numerous uses. It also belongs to the family Fabaceae.

• In evolutionary ecology, a parasitoid is an organism that lives in close association with its host at the host's expense, eventually resulting in the death of the host. Parasitoidism is one of six major evolutionary strategies within parasitism, distinguished by the fatal prognosis for the host, which makes the strategy close to predation.
• Option 1 is correct: Several genera of carabid beetles are ectoparasitoids as larvae. The parasitoid habit is uncommon in beetles; only eleven beetle families include parasitoid species. The best-known genera of parasitoid carabids are Brachinus, Lebia, and Lebistina. Brachinus, the celebrated bombardier beetle, emits a directed, explosive spray of boiling-hot quinone solution, which is considered the most highly evolved defensive secretion of the many types documented in the Carabidae.
• Options 3 and 5 are correct: Most parasitoids are either wasps and bees (Hymenoptera) or flies (Diptera), although a few species of beetles, twisted wing insects, moths, and other insects have been identified as parasitoids.
• Option 2 is not correct: Centipedes are predatory arthropods. Centipedes are predominantly generalist predators, which means they are adapted to eat a broad range of prey. Common prey items include lumbricid earthworms, dipteran fly larvae, collembolans, and other centipedes.
• Option 4 is not correct: Termites are primarily detritivores, consuming dead plants at any level of decomposition. They also play a vital role in the ecosystem by recycling waste material such as dead wood, faeces and plants.

• Statement 1 is correct: Perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are synthetic chemicals found in many products, such as clothing, carpets, fabrics for furniture, adhesives, paper packaging for food, and heat-resistant/non-stick cookware.
• Statement 2 is correct: They are also present in fire-fighting foams (or aqueous film forming foam; AFFF) used by both civilian and military firefighters. Also known as the "forever chemicals", PFAS are persistent (i.e., they do not break down) in the environment, and since they are used in the manufacturing of so many products, they are widespread internationally.
• Statement 3 is correct: People may encounter different PFAS chemicals in various ways. Over time, people may take in more of the chemicals than they excrete, a process that leads to bioaccumulation in bodies.

• The Congo Basin is home to the world’s largest tropical peatlands, along with Brazil and Indonesia. The peat swamp forest of the Congo Basin stores around 29 billion tons of carbon – approximately equivalent to three years’ worth of global greenhouse gas emissions – while the Basin as a whole absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide a year . The Basin stretches across six countries- Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.
• “The Congo Basin is one of the world’s last regions that absorbs more carbon than it emits. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• The axis of the earth which is an imaginary line, makes an angle of 66½° with its orbital plane. The plane formed by the orbit is known as the orbital plane. The earth receives light from the sun. Due to the spherical shape of the earth, only half of it gets light from the sun at a time. The portion facing the sun experiences day while the other half away from the sun experiences night.
• On 21st June, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, these areas receive more heat. The areas near the poles receive less heat as the rays of thesun are slanting. The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months. Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June. At this time in the Southern Hemisphere all these conditions are reversed. It is winter season there. The nights are longer than the days. This position of the earth is called the Summer Solstice. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• The rotation of the earth about its axis affects the direction of the wind. This force is called the Coriolis force after the French physicist who described it in 1844.
• It deflects the wind to the right direction in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. The deflection is more when the wind velocity is high. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force. The pressure gradient force is perpendicular to an isobar. The higher the pressure gradient force, the more is the velocity of the wind and the larger is the deflection in the direction of wind. As a result of these two forces operating perpendicular to each other, in the low-pressure areas the wind blowsaround it.
• At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. The low pressure gets filled instead of getting intensified. That is the reason why tropical cyclones are not formed near the equator

Marine West Coast Climate (British Type)

1. Geographical Distribution

   • Found along a narrow strip of coastal Oregon, Washington, British Columbia, and southern Alaska in North America.

   • Present along coastal Chile in South America.

   • Extends further inland in northwest Europe than in North America due to mountain orientation.

   • Also found on the southeast coast of Australia and New Zealand.

2. Climate Characteristics

   • Noted for mild summers and winters, leading to a small annual temperature range.

   • Located on the west coast of continents in midlatitudes, placing it in the path of the Westerlies.

   • Constant oceanic air influx throughout the year moderates temperatures.

   • Warm ocean currents, like the North Atlantic Drift, further contribute to mild temperatures.

   • Temperature ranges increase as one moves away from the coast.

3. Precipitation and Weather Patterns

   • Cyclonic activity in the Westerlies dominates the climate.

   • Frequent cyclonic storms bring prolonged rain, drizzle, and fog.

   • Some areas receive up to 250 cm (100 in) of precipitation annually.

4. Conclusion

   • Option (d) is the correct answer.

• Water vapour is also a variable gas in the atmosphere, which decreases with altitude. In the warm and wet tropics, it may account for four per cent of the air by volume, while in the dry and cold areas of desert and polar regions, it may be less than one per cent of the air. Hence statements 1 is correct and 2 is not correct.Water vapour also decreases from the equator towards the poles. It also absorbs parts of the insolation from the sun and preserves the earth’s radiated heat. It thus, acts like a blanket allowing the earth neither to become too cold nor too hot. Water vapour also contributes to the stability and instability in the air.

• Government of India has formulated a Greenfield Airports (GFA) Policy, 2008 for development of new Greenfield airports in the country. As per the policy, if any developer including the State Government desires to develop an airport, they are required to identify a suitable site and get the Pre-feasibility Study conducted for construction of airport and submit a proposal to the Central Government for 'Site Clearance' followed by 'In-Principle' approval.
• Government of India has accorded 'In-Principle' approval for setting up of 21 new Greenfield Airports namely, Mopa in Goa, Navi Mumbai, Shirdi and Sindhudurg in Maharashtra, Kalaburagi, Vijayapura, Hassan and Shivamogga in Karnataka, Dabra (Gwalior) in Madhya Pradesh, Kushinagar and Noida (Jewar) in Uttar Pradesh, Dholera and Hirasar in Gujarat, Karaikal in Puducherry, Dagadarthi, Bhogapuram and Orvakal (Kurnool) in Andhra Pradesh, Durgapur in West Bengal, Pakyong in Sikkim, Kannur in Kerala and Hollongi also known as Donyi Polo (Itanagar) in Arunachal Pradesh across the country.
• Vijayawada Internatioanal Airport is not a Greenfield airport.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Option 1 is not correct: The cashew is native to northeastern Brazil. Portuguese missionaries took it to East Africa and India during the late 16th century, where it became abundant at low altitudes near the seacoast.
• Option 2 is not correct: Papaya cultivation had its origin in South Mexico and Costa Rica. Total annual world production is estimated at 6 million tonnes of fruits. India leads the world in papaya production with an annual output of about 3 million tonnes.
• Option 3 is correct: As a native species to Andhra Pradesh, Red Sanders (also known as Red Sandalwood) use and trade are regulated by the State.

• Option 1 is correct: Papilio antimachus, also called African giant swallowtail, is the most poisonous butterfly in the world. It contains a lot of cardiac steroid toxins. The toxin in a male Papilio antimachus can poison 20 cats. The males have narrow forewings with a maximum wingspan of 25cm, ranking first among all the male butterflies.
• Option 2 is correct: Venomous fish are species of fish which produce strong mixtures of toxins harmful to humans which they deliberately deliver by means of a bite, sting, or stab, resulting in an envenomation. The Reef Stonefish is the most venomous fish in the world. It has thirteen stout spines in the dorsal fin which can inject a highly toxic venom.
• Option 3 is correct: Many species of frog are known to be poisonous, such as the often colourful poison dart frogs. There are currently only two species of frog known to be venomous: Bruno's casque-headed frog (Aparasphenodon brunoi) and Greening's frog (Corythomantis greeningi).Both are found in Brazil and produce skin secretions like other poisonous frogs - but these species have spiny bone protrusions that make their poison venom.

• In many species of fig trees, there is a tight one-to-one relationship with the pollinator species of wasp. It means that a given fig species can be pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp species and no other species. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while looking for suitable egg-laying sites. In return for the favour of pollination, the fig offers the wasp some of its developing seeds as food for the developing wasp larvae. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Distributed energy resources (DER) refers to often smaller generation units that are located on the consumer's side of the meter. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed include:

• • roof top solar photovoltaic units. wind generating units. battery storage.

• Any small-scale device that can produce energy convertible into electricity qualifies as a DER, including the following:

• • Rooftop solar panels
  • Wind-powered generators
  • Biomass generators
  • Gas and diesel power generators
  • Combined heat and power (CHP) systems
  • Waste heat recovery systems
  • Micro-hydropower schemes
  • Hydrogen fuel cells
  • EV and other power storage batteries 

• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

• 100 Million Farmers is a platform supporting private and public leaders to position food and farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Statement 1 is correct: Lions have no particular breeding season, and often synchronize breeding, especially after a pride takeover, raising the cubs communally.
• Statement 2 is correct: The bones of the cheetah's voice box form a fixed structure, with divided vocal cords that vibrate with both in and out breaths. This structure is the same for all the 'small' cats. While this design enables these cats to purr continuously, it limits the range of other sounds and prevents them from being able to roar. Cheetahs produce a variety of sounds including growls, purrs that generally denote contentment, chirps (between a mother and her cubs), and an "explosive yelp".
• Statement 3 is not correct: Leopards are territorial and mark their territory with faeces, urine and cheek-rubbing on trees. They can also leave scrape markings on the ground, trees or logs. This communicates to other leopards passing through that the territory they are in is occupied.

• Statement 1 is not correct: Founded on 19 November 2001, World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions worldwide. WTO empowers individuals through education, training and building local marketplace opportunities to advocate for clean and safe sanitation facilities in their communities.
• Statement 2 is correct: WTO established World Toilet Day and the World Toilet Summit in 2001; this was followed by the World Toilet College in 2005. Through its various initiatives, WTO continues to provide an international platform for toilet associations, governments, academic institutions, foundations, UN agencies and corporate stakeholders to exchange knowledge and leverage media and corporate support in an effort to promote clean sanitation and public health policies.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Its main function is not to grant funds to the LDCs and Developong countries. World Toilet Organization was granted consultative status with the United Nations Economic and Social Council in 2013.

• Option 1 is not correct: The indri also called the babakoto, is one of the largest living lemurs. It is endemic to Madagascar, and it is losing its rainforest habitat for fuel, timber, and slash-and-burn agriculture.
• Option 2 is not correct: The elk is the second largest species within the deer family, Cervidae, and one of the largest terrestrial mammals in its native range of North America and Central and East Asia.
• Option 3 is not correct: The bonobo also historically called the pygmy chimpanzee (less often the dwarf chimpanzee or gracile chimpanzee), is an endangered great ape. The bonobo is found in a 500,000 km2 area within the Congo Basin of the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Central Africa.

• Statement I is correct: Modern chewing gum is made up of four groups of ingredients that give gum its distinction flavor, texture, and bounce:

• • Fillers, such as talc and calcium carbonate, bulk out the gum and give it satisfying heft.
  • Polymers give gum their stretch. These are polymers such as polyvinyl acetate, along with other materials that make up the "gum base."
  • Emulsifiers are chemicals that help mix flavors and colors and reduce stickiness.Softeners, such as vegetable oil, are added to the gum base to keep it chewy rather than stiff.

• Statement II is correct: Regular chewing gum has a substance called PVA (polyvinyl acetate), which is used to make tyres and glue. The gums that we consume are plastic based, and PVA, in fact also damages public property.
• A Research Gate report states, “Each year, chewing gum generates more than 105 tonnes of ‘plastic’ garbage. Thus, the discarded non-biodegradable residue of the gum produces plastic pollution.” This waste is hard to collect or track and ends up living and polluting the earth for thousands of years. Hence statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

• Cicadas are members of the superfamily Cicadoidea and are physically distinguished by their stout bodies, broad heads, clear-membraned wings, and large compound eyes. Several cultures regarded these insects as powerful symbols of rebirth due to their unusual life cycles. There are more than 3,000 species of cicadas, which fall into roughly two categories: annual cicadas, which are spotted every year, and periodical cicadas, which spend most of their lives underground and only emerge once every decade or two.
• The froghoppers, or the superfamily Cercopoidea, are a group of hemipteran insects in the suborder Auchenorrhyncha. Adults are capable of jumping many times their height and length, giving the group their common name, but many species are best known for their plant-sucking nymphs which produce foam shelters, and are referred to as "spittlebugs"
• Pond skaters are predatory bugs/insects that mainly go around picking off the dead and unfortunate animals that fall onto the water surface and are trapped there.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer

• information given in row 1 is not correctly matched: The Dhuandhar Falls is a waterfall in Jabalpur district in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh, it is created by river Narmada. Jabalpur is not located in the Malwa region. It is located in the Mahakoshal region. The Vindhya Range forms the northern boundary of the Mahakoshal region; north of the Vindhya Range lie the regions of Malwa to the northwest, Bundelkhand to the north, and Bagelkhand to the northeast. Chhattisgarh state lies to the east, and the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra state lies to the south across the Satpura Range.
• Information given in row 2 is correctly matched: The Hundru Falls Ranchi, Jharkhand is created on the course of the Subarnarekha River, where it falls from a height of 320 feet creating the highest waterfalls of the state. It is the 34th highest waterfall in India.
• The Subarnarekha originates from the Ranchi Plateau in Jharkhand Forming the boundary between West Bengal and Odisha in its lower course. It joins the Bay of Bengal forming an estuary between the Ganga and Mahanadi deltas. Its total length is 395 km.
• Information given in row 3 is not correctly matched: Gersoppa waterfall is created by the Sharavathi River falling from a height of 253 m (830ft), making it the second-highest plunge waterfall in India.
• Located near Sagara, Shimoga District of Karnataka state.
• It is also called by alternative names of Gerusoppa falls, Gersoppa Falls and Jogada Gundi.
• The Sharavathi River basin is situated in the central part of the Western Ghats. It originates at Ambuthirtha and flows towards west for about 132 km before joining the Arabian Sea at Honnavar.

• North sea in northern Europe is part of the Atlantic ocean.
• It is bordered by the United Kingdom and Norway to the west, Denmark to the south, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, and France to the east, and the Faroe Islands and Norway's Svalbard archipelago to the north.
• The North Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean via the English Channel in the southwest and the Baltic Sea in the east via the Kattegat and Skagerrak straits. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.  

Chemical Weathering and Its Processes

1. Definition and Process

   • Chemical weathering is the fundamental process by which denudation occurs.

   • It involves the extremely slow and gradual decomposition of rocks due to exposure to air and water.

   • Air and water contain chemical elements that, even in small quantities, initiate chemical reactions in the surface layers of rocks.

   • These reactions can weaken or entirely dissolve certain rock constituents, loosening other crystals and weakening the surface.

2. Major Chemical Weathering Processes

   • Solution

     • Many minerals dissolve in water, especially when it contains carbon dioxide, forming a weak acid.

     • This process is most effective in limestone regions, where rainwater dissolves calcium carbonate, the primary component of limestone.

     • Dissolved calcium carbonate is carried away by water, widening joints and cracks, leading to the formation of caves and passages.

     • While limestone is highly susceptible, all rocks undergo solution to some extent, though at a slower rate.

     • Statement II is correct as it explains Statement I.

   • Oxidation

     • Rainwater and surface water contain dissolved oxygen due to contact with the atmosphere.

     • Oxidation occurs when oxygen in air or water reacts with minerals in the rock.

     • Example: Iron present in rocks reacts with air, forming iron oxide (rust), which crumbles easily and is more susceptible to erosion.

     • The removal of iron oxide weakens the overall structure of rocks.

     • Statement III is correct as it explains Statement I.

   • Decomposition by Organic Acids

     • Soil covering most rocks contains bacteria that thrive on decaying plant and animal material.

     • These bacteria produce acids that, when dissolved in water, accelerate the weathering of underlying rocks.

3. Conclusion

   • Option (a) is the correct answer.

• The Gomti is an alluvial river that originates from the Gomat Taal, otherwise called Fulhaar Jheel, found near the Madho Tanda in Pilibhit district in Uttar Pradesh, India. After flowing through an incised valley southwards through the districts of Sitapur, Lucknow, Barabanki, Sultanpur, and Jaunpur, it joins River Ganga near Varanasi.
• The Ghaghara originates in the glaciers of Mapchachungo. After collecting the waters of its tributaries – Tila, Seti and Beri, it comes out of the mountain, cutting a deep gorge at Shishapani. The river Sarda (Kali or Kali Ganga) joins it in the plain before it finally meets the Ganga at Chhapra.
• The Gandak comprises two streams, namely Kaligandak and Trishulganga. It rises in the Nepal Himalayas between the Dhaulagiri and Mount Everest and drains the central partof Nepal. It enters the Ganga plain in Champaran district of Bihar and joins the Ganga at Sonpur near Patna.
• The Kosi is an antecedent river with its source to the north of Mount Everest in Tibet, where its main stream Arun rises. After crossing the Central Himalayas in Nepal, it is joined by the Son Kosi from the West and the Tamur Kosi from the east. It forms Sapt Kosi after uniting with the river Arun. The Kosi river joins Ganga in the Katihar district of Bihar.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Cocoa, a native to the Americas, was a valuable crop in the earliest South American cultures. The term cocoa originated from the Nahuatl word “cacahuatl”. Many believe that the plant first grew in the Amazon and upper Orinoco basins but the Mayans and the Aztecs eventually developed techniques to cultivate cocoa successfully. The plant was considered as a symbol of wealth for these civilizations and its beans were used as currency. Cocoa beans are the main ingredient for making chocolate.
• Cocoa beans are produced in tropical zones around the Equator, where climate conditions are well suited for growing cocoa trees. About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon. The Ivory Coast and Ghana are by far the two largest producers of cocoa, accounting for more than 50 percent of the world´s cocoa. In 2021, the Ivory Coast alone produced approximately 2.1 million metric tons of cocoa beans. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.  

• The Isotherms are lines joining places having equal temperature.
• Figure given below shows the distribution of surface air temperature in the month of January. In general the effect of the latitude on temperature is well pronounced on the map as the isotherms are generally parallel to the latitude. The deviation from this general trend is more pronounced in January than in July, especially in the northern hemisphere. In the northern hemisphere the land surface area is much larger than in the southern hemisphere. Hence, the effects of land mass and the ocean currents are well pronounced.
• In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean. The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north. Over the land the temperature decreases sharply and the isotherms bend towards south in Europe. It is much pronounced in the Siberian plain. Hence statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
• The mean January temperature along 60° E longitude is minus 20° C both at 80° N and 50° N latitudes. The mean monthly temperature for January is over 27° C, in equatorial oceans over 24° C in the tropics and 2° C - 0° C in the middle latitudesand –18° C to –48° C in the Eurasian continental interior.
• The effect of the ocean is well pronounced in the southern hemisphere. Here the isotherms are more or less parallel to the latitudes and the variation in temperature is more gradualthan in the northern hemisphere. The isotherm of 20° C, 10° C, and 0° C runs parallel to 35°S, 45° S and 60° S latitudes respectively.

• The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
• Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• This layer contains dust particles and water vapour. All changes in climate and weather take place in this layer. The temperature in this layer decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165m of height. This is the most important layer for all biological activity.
• The zone separating the tropsophere from stratosphere is known as the tropopause. The air temperature at the tropopause is about minus 80°C over the equator and about minus 45°C over the poles. The temperature here is nearly constant, and hence, it is called the tropopause.

• The atmosphere is largely transparent to short wave solar radiation. The incoming solar radiation passes through the atmosphere before striking the earth’s surface. Within the troposphere water vapour, ozone and other gases absorb much of the near infrared radiation.
• The insolation received by the earth is in short waves forms and heats up its surface. The earth after being heated itself becomes a radiating body and it radiates energy to the atmosphere in long wave form. This energy heats up the atmosphere from below. This process is known as terrestrial radiation. The long wave radiation is absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by carbondioxide and the other green house gases. Thus,the atmosphere is indirectly heated by the earth’s radiation.
• Hence Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.  

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM)

1. Objective:

   • Provides old age protection and social security to Unorganised Workers (UW) engaged in various occupations such as:

     • Rickshaw pullers, street vendors, mid-day meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers.

     • Domestic workers, washermen, home-based workers, own account workers, agricultural workers, construction workers.

     • Beedi workers, handloom workers, leather workers, audio-visual workers, and similar other occupations.

2. Scheme Type:

   • Voluntary and contributory pension scheme.

   • Minimum assured pension of ₹3000 per month after attaining 60 years of age.

   • If the subscriber dies, the spouse receives 50% of the pension as family pension.

   • Family pension is applicable only to the spouse. (Statement 3 is correct, Statement 4 is not correct.)

3. Eligibility Criteria:

   • Unorganised Worker (UW).

   • Age between 18 and 40 years.

   • Monthly income of ₹15,000 or below. (Statement 1 is not correct.)

4. Contribution:

   • Contributions depend on the age at the time of enrolment. (Statement 2 is correct.)

• The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) is introduced to ensure quality Antenatal care to over 3 crore pregnant women in the country. Under the campaign, a minimum package of antenatal care services would be provided to the beneficiaries on the 9th day of every month at the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Clinics to ensure that every pregnant woman receives at least one checkup in the 2nd or 3rd trimester of pregnancyby a doctor. If the 9th day of the month is a Sunday/ a holiday, then the Clinic should be organized on the next working day. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• OBGY specialists/ Radiologist/physicians from private sector would be encouraged to provide voluntary services at public health facilities where government sector practitioners are not available or inadequate. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP)

1. Revamp and Funding:

   • Formerly known as the National Land Record Modernization Programme (NLRMP).

   • Revamped as a Central Sector Scheme from 1st April 2016 with 100% funding by the Centre.

   • Objective: To develop a modern, comprehensive, and transparent land record management system, leading to an Integrated Land Information Management System. (Statement 1 is correct.)

2. Key Components:

   • Computerization of Land Records

   • Digitization of Cadastral Maps

   • Computerization of Registration Offices

   • Integration of Sub-Registrar Offices (SROs) with Land Records (Statement 2 is correct.)

3. Innovative Initiatives under DILRMP:

   • Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) or Bhu-Aadhar:

     • A 14-digit alphanumeric unique ID for each land parcel.

     • Based on Geo-coordinates of parcel vertices.

     • Complies with ECCMA and OGC standards.

     • Implemented across the country.

   • Transliteration of Land Records into Schedule VIII languages:

     • Aims to overcome linguistic barriers in land governance.

     • Supported by Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune.

     • Enables conversion of Records of Rights (RoR) into any of the 22 Schedule VIII languages. (Statement 3 is correct.)

• With an exodus of more than 7.72 million people since 2014, the refugee crisis in Venezuela is the largest displacement crisis in Latin America and one of the largest in the world.
• Several root causes generate this unprecedented flow of migrants and refugees, including a deep economic crisis, repression and democratic breakdown in Venezuela. With the sometimes tumultuous changes in governments in Latin America, Venezuelans prefer to leave receiving countries rather than go through another national crisis. Since these elements will remain throughout the year, migration flows are expected to continue and even increase in 2024. Hence statement-I is not correct. 
• Venezuela has the world’s largest proven crude oil reserves accounting for approximately 17% of global reserves. Despite the sizeable reserves, Venezuela produced 0.8% of total global crude oil in 2023. Hence statement-II is correct. 

• Statement I is correct: Recently the European Parliament approved the Net-Zero industry Act to bolster EU production in technologies needed for decarbonisation. The "Net-Zero industry Act" sets a target for Europe to produce 40% of its annual deployment needs in net-zero technologies by 2030, based on National Energy and Climate Plans (NECPs) and to capture 15% of the global market value for these technologies.
• Statement II is not correct: The EU aims to be climate-neutral by 2050 – an economy with net-zero greenhouse gas emissions.

• Under Article 85(2) of the Constitution, the President may from time to time prorogue Houses or either House of Parliament. Such prorogation requires the advice of the council of ministers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Termination of a session of the House by an Order by the President under the above constitutional provision is called ‘prorogation’. Prorogation normally follows the adjournment of the sitting of the House sine die. But the president can prorogue when the house is in session too. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. The President may on his discretion, look for alternate government formation if the present government cannot prove a majority. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Lapsing of Bills on Dissolution of Lok Sabha

1. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all pending business (bills, motions, resolutions, notices, petitions, etc.) before it or its committees lapse.

2. To continue, such lapsed bills must be reintroduced in the newly constituted Lok Sabha.

3. Exceptions:

   • Some pending bills and all pending assurances examined by the Committee on Government Assurances do not lapse.

Specific Cases of Lapsing:

4. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses, whether it originated there or was transmitted by the Rajya Sabha. (Statement 1 is correct.)

5. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses. (Statement 2 is correct.)

6. A bill not passed due to disagreement, but for which the President has notified a joint sitting before dissolution, does not lapse. (Statement 3 is not correct.)

7. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

8. A bill passed by both Houses but pending the President’s assent does not lapse.

9. A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse.

• When a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration of the House, he cannot preside at the sitting of the House, though he may be present. However, he can speak and take part in the proceedings of the House at such a time and vote in the first instance, though not in the case of an equality of votes. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• In February, 2024, US lawmakers and apple growers celebrated the export of apples to India this year, which is 16 times more than last year after India decided to drop the 20 per cent retaliatory tariff put in 2019 on American products. Earlier in 2019, in retaliation for the then-Trump Administration's decision to revoke India's trade benefits under the Generalised System of Preferences (GSP) programme in March 2019, India imposed several retaliatory tariffs on American products, including Apple. Hence statement-I is not correct. 
• As per the import policy of Genetically Modified Food, Feed, Genetically Modified Organism (GMOs) and Living Modified Organisms (LMOs), import of GM food requires prior approval of the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) constituted by the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change. Import of food products is also regulated under the Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSAI), 2006. Indian Customs can clear food products including Genetically Modified(GM) food products only after necessary approval/No Objection Certificate(NOC) by FSSAI. Hence statement-II is correct. 

• The Sahel suffers from a long history of political instability, armed rebellions (especially in Mali and Niger), and bad governance. Since gaining independence in the 1960s, countries in the region have faced challenges of state- and nation-building. These countries inherited governing institutions and redefined territories that have proven difficult to manage. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In January 2023, the head of the UN Office for West Africa and the Sahel warned that armed conflicts have worsened human suffering and forced millions to flee. Roughly 2.7 million people have been displaced and 1.6 million children are malnourished. Multiple military coups have occurred in the region since 2020: two each in Burkina Faso and Mali, one in Chad, and another in neighbouring Guinea. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Both statements are correct, and Statement II does directly explain Statement I.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Garba, a traditional dance form from Gujarat, was the latest inclusion in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list in December 2023
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer. 

• The International Grains Council is an intergovernmental organization established in 1949, originally aimed at promoting cooperation in the global grains trade. India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Being a member of the International Grains Council is not a requirement for a country to export or import rice and wheat. The IGC operates through a system of member states, currently comprising major grain-producing and consuming countries. These members collaborate through regular meetings and consultations, where they discuss market conditions, policy challenges, and potential areas for collective action. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer. 

• The Upanishads contain several parables and stories that are used to explain philosophical concepts and teachings. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Upanishads are considered part of the Vedic literature and were composed during the later Vedic period, while the Puranas were composed much later, starting around the early centuries of the common era. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

• Under the Ryotwari Settlement, peasants were directly responsible for paying land revenue to the British government. However, there was no general provision for exemption from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. Farmers were forced to pay the revenue even during famines. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793, if a Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state on or before the fixed date, their land would auctioned off. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer. 

• Krishna Deva Raya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty and ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1509 to 1530. He is widely regarded as the greatest ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, known for his military conquests, administrative efficiency, and patronage of art and literature.

• His friendly relations with the Portuguese played a significant role in his rule. The Portuguese, led by Afonso de Albuquerque, were expanding their influence in India during this time. Krishna Deva Raya saw the benefit of trade with them, particularly in acquiring Arabian horses, which were crucial for strengthening his cavalry.

• In 1510, Afonso de Albuquerque, the Portuguese governor, sought permission from Krishna Deva Raya to build a fort at Bhatkal, a strategic port town on the western coast of India. The request was granted, reflecting the mutually beneficial relationship between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Portuguese.

Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Chandraketugarh:
  Chandraketugarh is located in the Ganges Delta and consists of a cluster of villages in the 24 Parganas district of West Bengal, about 35 kilometers (22 miles) northeast of Kolkata. Since this location does not match the description provided, row 1 is not correctly matched.

• Inamgaon:
  Inamgaon is a chalcolithic settlement situated in the state of Maharashtra, India, specifically in the Bhima River valley. The site was inhabited during the Chalcolithic period (c. 3300–1300 BCE) and is believed to have been home to several thousand people. The information provided is accurate; row 2 is correctly matched.

• Mangadu:
  Mangadu is located in Kerala and is a newly discovered prehistoric site. This site is notable for its large numbers of megaliths, which date approximately between 1000 BCE and 100 BCE. Since the description aligns with the actual information, row 3 is correctly matched.

• Salihundam:
  Salihundam is situated in Andhra Pradesh, India, and is recognized for its shrines dating back to the Buddhist era. The site features a variety of monuments, including mahastupas (large stupas), chaityas (prayer halls), viharas (monasteries), mandapas (pavilion halls), and votive stupas (smaller stupas). However, the site does not contain any rock-cut cave shrines, making the description inaccurate. Row 4 is not correctly matched.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Surviving early Jain and Buddhist literature mentions several names (epithets) for Mahavira, including:

  • Nayaputta

  • Muni

  • Samana

  • Nigantha

  • Brahman

  • Bhagavan

• Shakyamuni:

  • This epithet refers to Gautama Buddha as the "Sage of the Shakyas," signifying his association with the Shakya clan.

• Tathagata:

  • A Pali and Sanskrit term used by Gautama Buddha to refer to himself or other Buddhas.

  • It means "Thus-come," referring to one who has come from Thusness.

→ Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• Reserve Bank of India defines CBDC as the legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It is the same as a sovereign currency and is exchangeable one-to-one at par (1:1) with the fiat currency. While money in digital form is predominant in India—for example in bank accounts recorded as book entries on commercial bank ledgers—a CBDC would differ from existing digital money available to the public because a CBDC would be a liability of the Reserve Bank, and not of a commercial bank.
• The features of CBDC include:
  • CBDC is sovereign currency issued by Central Banks in alignment with their monetary policy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It appears as a liability on the central bank’s balance sheet. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Must be accepted as a medium of payment, legal tender, and a safe store of value by all citizens, enterprises, and government agencies.
  • Freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • Fungible legal tender for which holders need not have a bank account
  • Expected to lower the cost of issuance of money and transactions
• CBDC like the physical currency is not inherently insured against inflation. However, the data collected through CBDCs has the potential to be paired with strict reserve requirements for commercial banks, creating a theoretical framework for inflation control. Hence statement 3 is not correct. 

• Recent Context: In 2023, Country’s largest lender State Bank of India (SBI) concluded a $1 billion syndicated social loan facility. Shriram Finance raised multi-currency loan of $468 million via ECB in January, 2024. This is the largest widely syndicated loan transaction for a private NBFC from India in recent years.
• A syndicated loan is a form of financing that is offered by a group of lenders. Syndicated loans arise when a project requires too large a loan for a single lender or when a project needs a specialized lender with expertise in a specific asset class. Syndicating allows lenders to spread risk and take part in financial opportunities that may be too large for their individual capital base. Syndicated loans involve large sums, which allows the risk to be spread out among several financial institutions to mitigate the risk in case the borrower defaults. Lenders are referred to as a syndicate, which works together to provide funds for a single borrower. Hence statement-I is correct.
• The borrower can be a corporation, a large project, or a sovereign government. The loan can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit line, or a combination of the two. Hence statement-II is not correct. 

• As the national debt has increased, the U.S. Treasury Department has had to borrow more money to fund government spending by revoking the debt ceiling.

• The debt ceiling sets the maximum limit on the outstanding federal debt that the U.S. government can incur.

• Raising or suspending the debt ceiling by the U.S. Congress is necessary when the government needs to borrow beyond the authorized limit to pay its obligations.

• If Congress fails to lift the debt ceiling before the Treasury runs out of cash, the federal government will be unable to pay its obligations.

• If the U.S. defaults on its debt, holders of U.S. Treasury Bonds will not be able to claim payments.
  → Hence, statement I is correct.

• U.S. dollars are fiat currency, meaning they are not backed by a physical commodity (such as gold or silver), but by the issuing government.

• The value of fiat money is determined by supply and demand and the stability of the government, rather than the worth of a tangible asset.

• If people lose faith in a nation’s currency, the money loses value.

• U.S. Treasury Bonds are not backed by hard assets but by the faith in the government.

• If the U.S. government defaults, bondholders cannot enforce claims for repayment.
  → Hence, statement II is correct and is the correct explanation of statement I.

• The EPA’s national ambient air quality standards for SO₂ are designed to protect against exposure to the entire group of sulfur oxides (SOx).

• According to the EPA, the largest source of SO₂ emissions is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and industrial facilities.

• Smaller sources of SO₂ emissions include:

  • Industrial processes (e.g., extracting metal from ore).

  • Natural sources (e.g., volcanoes).

  • Transportation (e.g., locomotives, ships, vehicles, and heavy equipment that burn high-sulfur fuel).
    → Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

About EPA:

• The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is an independent agency of the United States government.

• It is responsible for environmental protection matters.

• The Red Sea region receives very little precipitation, although prehistoric artifacts suggest that rainfall was greater in the past.

• The climate is generally conducive to outdoor activity in fall, winter, and spring, except during windstorms.

• Temperatures range from 8°C to 28°C during these seasons.

• In summer, temperatures rise up to 40°C, and relative humidity is high, making vigorous activity unpleasant.

• The northern part of the Red Sea (down to 19° N) experiences north to northwest prevailing winds.
  → Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The average salinity of the oceans is 35.2 ppt (35 parts of salt per 1000 parts of water).

• In the Red Sea, due to high surface evaporation and fewer freshwater inflows, salinity increases to 39 ppt.

• While no significant rivers drain into the Red Sea, small rivulets do flow into it, meaning that some freshwater does enter.
  → Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The Suez Canal, SUMED pipeline, and Bab el-Mandeb Strait are strategic routes for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe and North America.

  • Total oil shipments via these routes accounted for about 12% of total seaborne-traded oil in the first half of 2023.

  • Liquefied natural gas (LNG) shipments via these routes made up about 8% of global LNG trade.
    → Hence, statement I is correct.

• The Suez Canal and SUMED pipeline are located in Egypt and serve as a link between the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.

  • The SUMED pipeline transports crude oil northward through Egypt.

  • It has a capacity of 2.5 million barrels per day.
    → Hence, statement II is correct.

• Statement II directly explains Statement I, as the Suez Canal and SUMED pipeline facilitate the transportation of oil and LNG, contributing to the strategic importance of these routes.

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Argentina is experiencing its worst economic crisis, with prices surging dramatically.

  • The government has increased the size of its largest banknote fivefold, issuing a 10,000-peso note worth about $10.
    → Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

• Sudan is undergoing one of the worst humanitarian crises in recent history due to nearly a year of war.

  • The conflict between the Sudanese Army (led by General Abdel Fattah al-Burhan) and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF) (led by Mohamed Hamdan Dagalo) has resulted in tens of thousands of deaths.

  • Famine looms amid international inaction.
    → Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

• Turkey has not rescinded its NATO membership.

  • Some countries suspect Turkey acts as a Trojan horse within NATO, blocking consensus until its demands are met.

  • NATO does not have a mechanism to expel a member; past withdrawals were voluntary.
    → Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• "Why Bharat Matters" is a 2024 non-fiction book written by S. Jaishankar, an Indian politician and author.

• At the time of publishing, Jaishankar was the incumbent Minister of External Affairs in the Second Modi ministry.

• The book discusses India's foreign policy and highlights Bharat’s growing global role as a potential superpower.

• "The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World" is another book by Dr. S. Jaishankar.

  • The book is notable for two reasons:

    1. It is written by a career diplomat with four decades of experience, offering a unique vantage perspective.

    2. Jaishankar has transitioned into a policy-making and strategy-defining role, making insights into his thoughts valuable.

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Article 112 of the Indian Constitution states that every year, the President of India shall cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament the “Annual Financial Statement” (Union Budget).

• The Union Finance Minister presents the budget on behalf of the President, not the Prime Minister.
  Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Article 113(3) specifies that no demand for grants can be presented in the Lok Sabha without the prior approval of the President of India.
  Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Article 342(1) states that the President may, with respect to any State or Union Territory, and in the case of a State, after consultation with the Governor, specify by public notification the tribes or tribal communities or parts/groups within them as Scheduled Tribes for that State or Union Territory.
  Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Article 342(2) empowers the Parliament to pass a law to include or exclude any tribe or tribal community (or parts of them) from the List of Scheduled Tribes.

• The List of Scheduled Tribes is State/UT specific, meaning that a community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in one State/UT may not necessarily be recognized as such in another.
  Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• A writ of prohibition is issued by a Court to prohibit the lower courts, tribunals and other quasi-judicial authorities from doing something beyond their authority. It is issued to direct inactivity and thus differs from mandamus which directs activity.
• The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasijudicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• The exercise was conducted between India and Sri Lanka from 16th to 29th November 2023.

• The Indian contingent consisted of 120 personnel, primarily from the MARATHA LIGHT INFANTRY Regiment.

• The Sri Lankan contingent consisted of personnel from the 53 Infantry Division. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Key Details of Exercise MITRA SHAKTI-2023:

• It was the ninth edition of the Joint Military Exercise.

• The exercise commenced in Aundh (Pune). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Aim of the exercise:

  • To jointly rehearse the conduct of Sub-Conventional Operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter.

  • The scope includes synergizing joint responses during counter-terrorist operations.

  • Both sides practiced tactical actions such as:

    1. Raid missions

    2. Search and destroy operations

    3. Heliborne operations
       Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Additional Participation and Equipment:

  • 15 personnel from the Indian Air Force and 5 personnel from the Sri Lankan Air Force also participated.

  • The exercise involved:

    1. Drones and Counter-Unmanned Aerial Systems

    2. Helicopters

    3. Drills for securing helipads

    4. Casualty evacuation during counter-terrorist operations
       Hence, statement 4 is correct.

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023, also known as ‘Nari Shakti Adhiniyam’, reserves one-third (33%) of all seats for women in:

  1. Lok Sabha

  2. State Legislative Assemblies

  3. Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi

  4. Including those seats reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs)

Key Provisions:

• Within the 33% reservation for women, there will be sub-reservations for SCs and STs in line with their proportion in the population. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The reservation will be in effect for 15 years from the date of commencement of the legislation.

• The duration can be extended by Parliament if deemed necessary. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The bill does not propose any reservation for women in Rajya Sabha or State Legislative Councils.

• The reservation will come into effect after the first delimitation exercise undertaken post-commencement of the bill, ensuring constituencies are redrawn to reflect population changes. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The NEC Act, 1971 was amended by the Parliament in 2002 (Act No. 68 of 2002).

• The term 'North Eastern Areas' now includes the States of:

  1. Assam

  2. Manipur

  3. Meghalaya

  4. Nagaland

  5. Tripura

  6. Arunachal Pradesh

  7. Sikkim

  8. Mizoram

• The Council's members include:

  1. Governors of the above-mentioned States.

  2. Chief Ministers of these States.

  3. Three Members nominated by the President.

• The President nominates the Chairman of the Council, and the Chairman need not be chosen from among the other Members.

• The North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 mandates the NEC to function as a 'regional planning body'.

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Article 109 provides for the special procedure in respect of Money Bills. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Provisions of Article 109:

  1. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  2. After being passed by the House of the People (Lok Sabha), the Money Bill is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations.

  3. The Council of States (Rajya Sabha) must return the Money Bill to the House of the People within 14 days from the date of its receipt with its recommendations.

  4. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

  5. The House of the People (Lok Sabha) can accept or reject all or any of the recommendations made by the Council of States.

  6. If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendations, the Money Bill is considered passed by both Houses with the accepted amendments.

  7. If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendations, the Money Bill is considered passed by both Houses in its original form as passed by the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

  8. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Money Bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Lok Sabha.

• Japan's population will more than halve, from a peak of 128 million in 2017 to less than 53 million by the end of the century. Japan already has the world's oldest population and the highest rate of people over the age of 100.
• The Italian population is also expected to more than halve, from 61 million in 2017 to 28 million by the end of the century. Like Japan, Italy is known for its ageing population. More than 23% of people there were over the age of 65 in 2019, according to World Bank data.
• Nigeria and other countries in Africa are bucking the trend of population decline. Nigeria will become the world's second most populous country, with 791 million people. The new study predicts that Nigeria will have one of the largest working-age populations in the world by 2100 and see big increases in GDP.
• South Korea's demographic crisis has become the top risk to economic growth and the social welfare system, with the country's population of 51 million on track to halve by the end of this century. South Korea has previously projected its fertility rate is likely to fall further to 0.68 in 2024.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

• Article 368(1) of the Indian Constitution states:

  • "Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation, or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article."

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• World Heritage List by UNESCO includes the following sites from India:

  • Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya (2002)

  • Rani-ki-Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell) at Patan, Gujarat (2014)

  • Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (2023)

  • Santiniketan (2023)

• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• India developed cultural relations with China through the propagation of Buddhism.

• In the 1st century B.C., Buddhist monks Dharmaratna and Kasyapa Matanga traveled to China, where they:

  • Translated Buddhist texts into Chinese.

  • Preached Buddhism among the Chinese people.

• By the 3rd or 4th century A.D., Buddhism became widely popular in China.

• Several Buddhist missionaries later traveled to China, including:

  • Kumarajiva

  • Sangabhuti

  • Gyanabhadra

  • Buddhbhadra

  • Jiva Gupta

  • Dharma Gupta

  • Prabhakaramitra

  • Sudhakarasingha

• Similarly, many Chinese pilgrims visited India, the most notable being:

  • Fa-Hien

  • Hiuen-Tsang

  • I-tsing

• Sangabhuti authored the commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya.

• Bhāsa was the earliest known Sanskrit dramatist, with many of his complete plays discovered.

• There is no consensus on the exact time period of his works, with estimates ranging from 475 BCE to the 11th century CE.

• The Sanskrit poet Nannaya (around 400 CE) mentioned Bhāsa in his works, suggesting Bhāsa may have lived around 350 CE.

• Bhāsa is considered one of the earliest dramatists in Sanskrit literature.

• He authored several plays, including:

  • Madhyamavyayoga

  • DutaGhatotkacha

  • Dutavakya

  • Balacharita

  • Charudatta

• The Government of India Act of 1935 was a crucial legislation passed by the British Parliament, shaping the political structure of independent India.

Key Provisions:

1. Establishment of an All-India Federation:

   • Proposed a “Federation of India” including both British Indian territories and princely states.

   • The federation never materialized due to lack of support from the required number of princely states.

2. Division of Powers:

   • Powers were divided into three lists:

     • Federal List (Central Government)

     • Provincial List (Provincial Governments)

     • Concurrent List (Shared powers)

3. Provincial Autonomy:

   • Abolished the diarchy system introduced by the Government of India Act of 1919.

   • Granted greater autonomy to provinces.

4. Introduction of Dyarchy at the Center:

   • Introduced the concept of dyarchy at the center.

   • Certain subjects like Defence, External Affairs, Ecclesiastical Affairs, and Tribal Areas were reserved for the Governor-General.

5. Bicameral Legislature:

   • Established a bicameral federal legislature, comprising:

     • Council of State

     • Federal Assembly

6. Extension of Franchise:

   • Expanded voting rights, increasing the size of legislatures.

7. Establishment of a Federal Court:

   • Introduced the Federal Court to adjudicate disputes between provinces and the center.

8. Safeguards for Minorities:

   • Included provisions for protecting the rights of minorities.

9. Restructuring of Provinces:

   • Partially restructured provinces, including:

     • Separation of Sindh from Bombay.

     • Splitting Bihar and Orissa Province into separate provinces of Bihar and Orissa.

     • Complete separation of Burma from India.

• The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.

• The Muslim League boycotted the meeting, demanding a separate state of Pakistan.

• Due to this boycott, the meeting was attended by only 211 members.

• Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member, was elected as the temporary/provisional President of the Assembly, following the French practice.

• Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly.

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• Genesis of the Ethics Committee in Parliament:

  • Originated from a resolution adopted at the Presiding Officers Conference in New Delhi (October 1996).

  • The resolution urged legislatures to explore the possibility of forming an Ethics Committee.

  • As a result, efforts to establish Ethics Committees in Indian Legislatures began.

• Formation of the Ethics Committee in Rajya Sabha:

  • Constituted by Vice President (and Rajya Sabha Chairman) K R Narayanan on March 4, 1997.

  • Officially inaugurated in May 1997.

  • Oversees moral and ethical conduct of members and examines cases of misconduct referred to it.

  • The Rules applicable to the Committee of Privileges also apply to the Ethics Committee.

• Formation of the Ethics Committee in Lok Sabha:

  • A study group from the House Committee of Privileges visited Australia, the UK, and the US (1997) to study the conduct and ethics of legislators.

  • The group recommended forming an Ethics Committee, but it was not immediately implemented.

  • The Committee of Privileges later recommended its formation during the 13th Lok Sabha.

  • Late Speaker G M C Balayogi constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000.

  • It became a permanent part of Lok Sabha in 2015.

  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Complaint Procedure:

  • Any person can complain against an MP through another Lok Sabha MP, with:

    • Evidence of misconduct.

    • An affidavit stating that the complaint is not false, frivolous, or vexatious.

  • If the Member himself makes the complaint, an affidavit is not required.

  • The Speaker can refer any complaint against an MP to the Committee.

  • Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• Scope and Functioning of the Committee:

  • It does not entertain complaints based only on media reports or on matters that are sub judice.

  • Conducts a prima facie inquiry before deciding to examine a complaint.

  • Evaluates complaints and makes recommendations based on findings.

  • Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Canada's border with the United States is the world's longest international border, measuring 8,890 km.

• This compares with:

  • The 6,846-km boundary between Russia and Kazakhstan.

  • The 5,308-km frontier between Chile and Argentina.

• India shares a 3,488 km border with China, which runs along:

  • Union Territory of Ladakh

  • States of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Operation SADBHAVANA is an initiative of the Indian Army to support welfare activities in the Union Territory of Ladakh.

• The Army is undertaking multiple welfare activities, including:

  • Running of Army Goodwill Schools

  • Infrastructure Development Projects

  • Educational Tours for children living in remote areas of Ladakh

• The aim is to improve the standard of education and ensure the provision of quality education.

• Women empowerment initiatives under the program include:

  • Training programs in Vocational Training Centres, Women Empowerment Centres, and Computer Centres.

  • Training in various activities such as:

    • Pashmina Shawl Weaving

    • Wool Knitting

    • Extraction of Apricot Oil

    • Yak Cheese Making and Baking

• The ‘Kargil Ignited Minds’ initiative is exclusively for girl students of Kargil to help them prepare for competitive exams for admissions into professional colleges and institutions in India.

• The funds under Operation SADBHAVANA are utilized for various activities, including:

  • Human Resource/Skill Development

  • Sports

  • Healthcare

  • National Integration

  • Infrastructure Development

  • Ecology and Environment

  • Education

• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

• The duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include:

  • Heading the Department of Military Affairs in the Ministry of Defence and functioning as its Secretary.

  • Acting as the Principal Military Advisor to the Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters.

  • Functioning as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.

  • Administering the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands.

  • Being a member of the Defence Acquisition Council, chaired by the Raksha Mantri.

  • Functioning as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.

  • Bringing about jointness in operations, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, repairs, and maintenance of the three Services.

  • Ensuring optimal utilisation of infrastructure and rationalizing it through jointness among the Services.

  • Implementing the Five-Year Defence Capital Acquisition Plan and Two-Year roll-on Annual Acquisition Plans, as a follow-up of the Integrated Capability Development Plan.

  • Assigning inter-services prioritisation to capital acquisition proposals based on the anticipated budget.

  • Bringing about reforms in the functioning of the three Services to augment combat capabilities of the Armed Forces by reducing wasteful expenditure.

• The CDS does not exercise military command over the three Services.

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Supreme Court of India, in the case Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India, declared that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right under Article 21.

• In doing so, the Supreme Court overruled the verdicts given in:

  • The M.P. Sharma case (1958)

  • The Kharak Singh case (1961)

• Both of these cases had stated that the Right to Privacy is not protected under the Indian Constitution.

• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Indian Constitution is the world’s lengthiest written constitution.

  • At the time of commencement, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules.

  • Currently, it has 448 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules.

• Part IX-A of the Indian Constitution deals with municipalities, including their composition, powers, etc.

  • It was added by the 74th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution.

  • The 74th Amendment Act was introduced in 1992 and came into force on 1st June 1993.

  • Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution provides for three types of emergencies:

  1. General Emergency (also called National Emergency)

  2. Breakdown of constitutional machinery in the states (also called State Emergency)

  3. Financial Emergency

  • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The procedure for amendment in the Constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.

  • Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was an Indian nationalist political party, established on 21 October 1951 in Delhi.

  • It existed from 1951 to 1977.

  • Its three founding members were Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Balraj Madhok, and Deendayal Upadhyaya.

  • Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.

• C. Rajagopalachari was the founder of the Swatantra Party, not the Socialist Party.

  • The Socialist Party was associated with leaders like Ram Manohar Lohia and Jayaprakash Narayan.

  • Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

• The Congress for Democracy (CFD) was an Indian political party founded in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram.

  • It was formed after Jagjivan Ram, Hemavati Nandan Bahuguna, and Nandini Satpathy left the Indian National Congress of Indira Gandhi and denounced her rule during the Indian Emergency.

  • Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

• The Swatantra Party was an Indian classical liberal political party that existed from 1959 to 1974.

  • It was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in reaction to the Jawaharlal Nehru-dominated Indian National Congress’s increasingly socialist and statist outlook.

  • Hence, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

• The 71st Amendment, enacted in 1992, included three more languages:

  • Konkani

  • Meitei (Manipuri)

  • Nepali

• The 92nd Amendment, enacted in 2003, added four more languages:

  • Bodo

  • Dogri

  • Santhali

  • Maithili

• This raised the total number of languages to 22.

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

• Delimitation refers to the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or province with a legislative body.

• The responsibility of delimitation is assigned to a high-power body known as the Delimitation Commission or Boundary Commission.

• In India, Delimitation Commissions have been constituted four times:

  • 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952

  • 1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962

  • 1973 under the Delimitation Act, 1972

  • 2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002

  • Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

• The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders:

  • Have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.

  • Come into force on a date specified by the President of India.

  • Are laid before the House of the People and the State Legislative Assembly concerned.

  • Cannot be modified by these legislative bodies.